Question:
Pastor Hank, In John 4:7, Jesus says to the woman at the well, “Give me to drink.” I understand that He was breaking all the rules at that time in even speaking to her, and that this is evidence that He sees men and women on the same grounds. However, it seems to have a demanding tone. Why didn’t He ask her for a drink, instead of telling her to give Him one. I’ve read through all the commentaries I could find on this, but none seem to address it. Are we missing something in the translation? Should we assume that there is an implied “please” attached to the four word statement? Thanks, Debbie in St.Pete
Answer:
You must remember that Jesus is God. Also, I am sure that He was gracious in His request.