Question:
If tongues is suppose to be a language in a particular dialect why does it say in 1 Cor. 14-2, “for anyone who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God.” ?? In Mark 16-7, “in these signs will accompany those who believe; in my name they will drive out demons: they will speak in new tongues. If tongues was suppose to cease why did Jesus say these things and did not give any indication of it ending? Jesus says I am the same yesterday, today and forever more. Since this is true wouldn’t it mean that people could possibly speak in tongues today?
Answer:
1. Yes, this was a specific language. 2. Mark is also speaking of a specific language. Jesus is the same Jesus. BUT Remember in Matthew 10 Jesus commanded his apostles and told them NOT TO GO TO ANY GENTILES. After His ministry was rejected, He announced the future Gentile church in Matthew 16 and made the announcement in a gentile city. After Pentecost, tongues became unneccessary because it was used to reach the Jews in a gentile language. As the gospel went to Gentiles the gift was unnecessary. At Penecost you had Jews reaching Jews and the gift of tongues was necessary if those Jews were to be won to Christ in a gentile language. This was a prophecy fulfilled. See I Corintians 14:21. REMEMBER THE SAME JESUS CAME AS A SAVIOR AND DIED AT CALVARY AT THE FIRST COMING. AT THE SECOND COMING THE SAME JESUS WILL COME IN FLAMING FIRE AND KILL ALL UNBLIEVERS. II THESSALONIANS 1:8,9.