Question:
In Luke 17:34, It says, “I tell you, in that night there shall be two men in one bed; the one shall be taken, and the other shall be left.” I know that the jist of the verse concerns the rapture, however, I have a question of the words “two men”. I have some gay acquaintances who would use this as proof that homosexuality is OK. I’ve checked in Matthew Henry’s commentary, but it doesn’t address this. It’s odd, because in the next verses women are specified, and then men again. Why didn’t it say “a man and a woman” or “two people”? Thanks.
Answer:
This passage to which you are referring is found in Luke 17:34-36. Please notice that the word ‘men’ and the word ‘women’ are in italics. This is the translators letting us know that these words are not in the original manuscripts but are added by the translators. Sorry, there is no approval of homosexual behavior here. It probably would have been better translated ‘TWO PERSONS’. “I tell you, in that night there shall be two men in one bed; the one shall be taken, and the other shall be left. Two women shall be grinding together; the one shall be taken, and the other left. Two men shall be in the field; the one shall be taken, and the other left.” TAKE A LOOK AT LEVITICUS 20:13, “If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.”